Find the inverse Laplace transforms of the following functions:
Note that as soon as we step inside the exam hall we write down the following rule that is on the tables but not nearly in as nice a form:
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(i)
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Solution
This looks quite tricky but all it needs is a little trick. Multiply out by hand (or by memory or by the Binomial Theorem (in tables)) to get:
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Now taking advantage of the linearity of the inverse Laplace transform (I’m just going to write instead of
. To get a nice inverse Laplace transform symbol I have to type \mathcal{L}^{-1} — along with some dollar signs and I’m sick of it! — no keyboard shortcuts on this page — the notes have shortcuts.)
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Now using the tables;
.
(ii)
Solution
Now this looks like
,
which we know how to deal with. It is our job to get it looking a bit more like this. We can do this by taking out a out of the bottom line:
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Now using linearity, and the tables, this has inverse transform:
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